Can the Queen still dissolve parliament?












2















Traditionally it has been the constitutional power of the monarch to dissolve parliament and trigger a general election at will.



Ostensibly, the Fixed Term Parliaments Act of 2011 removed this power.



However, since parliament derives its power from delegated royal prerogative and acts can only become law with royal assent. Is this actually binding and could the Queen still dissolve parliament if she so wished, even if she had to take a few steps to repeal that law first?










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    2















    Traditionally it has been the constitutional power of the monarch to dissolve parliament and trigger a general election at will.



    Ostensibly, the Fixed Term Parliaments Act of 2011 removed this power.



    However, since parliament derives its power from delegated royal prerogative and acts can only become law with royal assent. Is this actually binding and could the Queen still dissolve parliament if she so wished, even if she had to take a few steps to repeal that law first?










    share|improve this question







    New contributor




    Persistence is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.























      2












      2








      2








      Traditionally it has been the constitutional power of the monarch to dissolve parliament and trigger a general election at will.



      Ostensibly, the Fixed Term Parliaments Act of 2011 removed this power.



      However, since parliament derives its power from delegated royal prerogative and acts can only become law with royal assent. Is this actually binding and could the Queen still dissolve parliament if she so wished, even if she had to take a few steps to repeal that law first?










      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      Persistence is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.












      Traditionally it has been the constitutional power of the monarch to dissolve parliament and trigger a general election at will.



      Ostensibly, the Fixed Term Parliaments Act of 2011 removed this power.



      However, since parliament derives its power from delegated royal prerogative and acts can only become law with royal assent. Is this actually binding and could the Queen still dissolve parliament if she so wished, even if she had to take a few steps to repeal that law first?







      united-kingdom constitutional-law






      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      Persistence is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      Persistence is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked 5 hours ago









      PersistencePersistence

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      1133




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          1 Answer
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          Parliament derives its power from Britain's unwritten constitution, not from delegated royal prerogative. This certainly dates to at latest the Glorious Revolution. The Bill of Rights 1688 explicitly confirmed that the King has no power to dispense with laws, and the Case of Proclamations in 1610 established that the King could not legislate without the consent of Parliament. The ultimate authority in the UK is not the Queen, it's the Queen in Parliament (in other words, Parliamentary action with royal assent).






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          • 1





            Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

            – Persistence
            2 hours ago











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          Parliament derives its power from Britain's unwritten constitution, not from delegated royal prerogative. This certainly dates to at latest the Glorious Revolution. The Bill of Rights 1688 explicitly confirmed that the King has no power to dispense with laws, and the Case of Proclamations in 1610 established that the King could not legislate without the consent of Parliament. The ultimate authority in the UK is not the Queen, it's the Queen in Parliament (in other words, Parliamentary action with royal assent).






          share|improve this answer





















          • 1





            Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

            – Persistence
            2 hours ago
















          4














          Parliament derives its power from Britain's unwritten constitution, not from delegated royal prerogative. This certainly dates to at latest the Glorious Revolution. The Bill of Rights 1688 explicitly confirmed that the King has no power to dispense with laws, and the Case of Proclamations in 1610 established that the King could not legislate without the consent of Parliament. The ultimate authority in the UK is not the Queen, it's the Queen in Parliament (in other words, Parliamentary action with royal assent).






          share|improve this answer





















          • 1





            Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

            – Persistence
            2 hours ago














          4












          4








          4







          Parliament derives its power from Britain's unwritten constitution, not from delegated royal prerogative. This certainly dates to at latest the Glorious Revolution. The Bill of Rights 1688 explicitly confirmed that the King has no power to dispense with laws, and the Case of Proclamations in 1610 established that the King could not legislate without the consent of Parliament. The ultimate authority in the UK is not the Queen, it's the Queen in Parliament (in other words, Parliamentary action with royal assent).






          share|improve this answer















          Parliament derives its power from Britain's unwritten constitution, not from delegated royal prerogative. This certainly dates to at latest the Glorious Revolution. The Bill of Rights 1688 explicitly confirmed that the King has no power to dispense with laws, and the Case of Proclamations in 1610 established that the King could not legislate without the consent of Parliament. The ultimate authority in the UK is not the Queen, it's the Queen in Parliament (in other words, Parliamentary action with royal assent).







          share|improve this answer














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          edited 46 mins ago









          Steve Melnikoff

          1,191511




          1,191511










          answered 2 hours ago









          cpastcpast

          12.9k12559




          12.9k12559








          • 1





            Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

            – Persistence
            2 hours ago














          • 1





            Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

            – Persistence
            2 hours ago








          1




          1





          Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

          – Persistence
          2 hours ago





          Well that answers that one then. So to check I understand you right, neither parliament nor the Queen are sovereign but the composition of the two are.

          – Persistence
          2 hours ago










          Persistence is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










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