Hölder norm of the Hilbert Transform












6












$begingroup$


Let $mathcal{H}$ the Hilbert transform defined by
$$mathcal{H}f(x)= p.v.int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{f(x-y)}{y}dy.$$
We know that, for each $1<p<infty$, it is true that
$$||mathcal{H}f||_{L^p}leq C_p||f||_{L^p}$$
for some positive constant depending only of $p$.



My question is:
Consider $0<alpha<1$ and $||f||_{C^{alpha}}$ is the $alpha^{th}$-Holder norm, e.g,
$$||f||_{C^{alpha}(Omega)}=sup_{xneq yinOmega}frac{|f(x)-f(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}.$$
Is it true that
$$||mathcal{H}{f}||_{C^{alpha}}leq C||f||_{C^{alpha}}?$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, take $C=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    14 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    adjusted, @supinf.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The $L^inftyto L^infty$ estimate fails, so there must be some explicit example of a sequence $f_n$ such that $|Hf_n|_{L^infty}/|f_n|_{L^infty}to infty$. I guess that the same counterexample would make the $C^alpha to C^alpha$ estimate fail as well. Can you please check? I am interested.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro Your Idea does not work if the function $f_n$ is not continuous. And i think the heaviside function could be a counterexample for $L^infty$, but i did not check it.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    12 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @orange, $p.v.$ is the principal value.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    6 hours ago
















6












$begingroup$


Let $mathcal{H}$ the Hilbert transform defined by
$$mathcal{H}f(x)= p.v.int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{f(x-y)}{y}dy.$$
We know that, for each $1<p<infty$, it is true that
$$||mathcal{H}f||_{L^p}leq C_p||f||_{L^p}$$
for some positive constant depending only of $p$.



My question is:
Consider $0<alpha<1$ and $||f||_{C^{alpha}}$ is the $alpha^{th}$-Holder norm, e.g,
$$||f||_{C^{alpha}(Omega)}=sup_{xneq yinOmega}frac{|f(x)-f(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}.$$
Is it true that
$$||mathcal{H}{f}||_{C^{alpha}}leq C||f||_{C^{alpha}}?$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, take $C=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    14 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    adjusted, @supinf.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The $L^inftyto L^infty$ estimate fails, so there must be some explicit example of a sequence $f_n$ such that $|Hf_n|_{L^infty}/|f_n|_{L^infty}to infty$. I guess that the same counterexample would make the $C^alpha to C^alpha$ estimate fail as well. Can you please check? I am interested.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro Your Idea does not work if the function $f_n$ is not continuous. And i think the heaviside function could be a counterexample for $L^infty$, but i did not check it.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    12 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @orange, $p.v.$ is the principal value.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    6 hours ago














6












6








6


3



$begingroup$


Let $mathcal{H}$ the Hilbert transform defined by
$$mathcal{H}f(x)= p.v.int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{f(x-y)}{y}dy.$$
We know that, for each $1<p<infty$, it is true that
$$||mathcal{H}f||_{L^p}leq C_p||f||_{L^p}$$
for some positive constant depending only of $p$.



My question is:
Consider $0<alpha<1$ and $||f||_{C^{alpha}}$ is the $alpha^{th}$-Holder norm, e.g,
$$||f||_{C^{alpha}(Omega)}=sup_{xneq yinOmega}frac{|f(x)-f(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}.$$
Is it true that
$$||mathcal{H}{f}||_{C^{alpha}}leq C||f||_{C^{alpha}}?$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $mathcal{H}$ the Hilbert transform defined by
$$mathcal{H}f(x)= p.v.int_{-infty}^{+infty}frac{f(x-y)}{y}dy.$$
We know that, for each $1<p<infty$, it is true that
$$||mathcal{H}f||_{L^p}leq C_p||f||_{L^p}$$
for some positive constant depending only of $p$.



My question is:
Consider $0<alpha<1$ and $||f||_{C^{alpha}}$ is the $alpha^{th}$-Holder norm, e.g,
$$||f||_{C^{alpha}(Omega)}=sup_{xneq yinOmega}frac{|f(x)-f(y)}{|x-y|^{alpha}}.$$
Is it true that
$$||mathcal{H}{f}||_{C^{alpha}}leq C||f||_{C^{alpha}}?$$







functional-analysis harmonic-analysis






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 14 hours ago







VVCM

















asked 14 hours ago









VVCMVVCM

1178




1178












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, take $C=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    14 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    adjusted, @supinf.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The $L^inftyto L^infty$ estimate fails, so there must be some explicit example of a sequence $f_n$ such that $|Hf_n|_{L^infty}/|f_n|_{L^infty}to infty$. I guess that the same counterexample would make the $C^alpha to C^alpha$ estimate fail as well. Can you please check? I am interested.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro Your Idea does not work if the function $f_n$ is not continuous. And i think the heaviside function could be a counterexample for $L^infty$, but i did not check it.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    12 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @orange, $p.v.$ is the principal value.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    6 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, take $C=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    14 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    adjusted, @supinf.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The $L^inftyto L^infty$ estimate fails, so there must be some explicit example of a sequence $f_n$ such that $|Hf_n|_{L^infty}/|f_n|_{L^infty}to infty$. I guess that the same counterexample would make the $C^alpha to C^alpha$ estimate fail as well. Can you please check? I am interested.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro Your Idea does not work if the function $f_n$ is not continuous. And i think the heaviside function could be a counterexample for $L^infty$, but i did not check it.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    12 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @orange, $p.v.$ is the principal value.
    $endgroup$
    – VVCM
    6 hours ago
















$begingroup$
Yes, take $C=1$.
$endgroup$
– supinf
14 hours ago




$begingroup$
Yes, take $C=1$.
$endgroup$
– supinf
14 hours ago












$begingroup$
adjusted, @supinf.
$endgroup$
– VVCM
14 hours ago




$begingroup$
adjusted, @supinf.
$endgroup$
– VVCM
14 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
The $L^inftyto L^infty$ estimate fails, so there must be some explicit example of a sequence $f_n$ such that $|Hf_n|_{L^infty}/|f_n|_{L^infty}to infty$. I guess that the same counterexample would make the $C^alpha to C^alpha$ estimate fail as well. Can you please check? I am interested.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
14 hours ago




$begingroup$
The $L^inftyto L^infty$ estimate fails, so there must be some explicit example of a sequence $f_n$ such that $|Hf_n|_{L^infty}/|f_n|_{L^infty}to infty$. I guess that the same counterexample would make the $C^alpha to C^alpha$ estimate fail as well. Can you please check? I am interested.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
14 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro Your Idea does not work if the function $f_n$ is not continuous. And i think the heaviside function could be a counterexample for $L^infty$, but i did not check it.
$endgroup$
– supinf
12 hours ago




$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro Your Idea does not work if the function $f_n$ is not continuous. And i think the heaviside function could be a counterexample for $L^infty$, but i did not check it.
$endgroup$
– supinf
12 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
@orange, $p.v.$ is the principal value.
$endgroup$
– VVCM
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
@orange, $p.v.$ is the principal value.
$endgroup$
– VVCM
6 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















7












$begingroup$

I believe the answer is yes. Going to cheat, pulling out a big gun.



If $0<alpha<1$ then $C^alpha$ is in fact a Besov space; we have $fin C^alpha$ if and only if $$f=sum_{ninBbb Z} f_n,$$where $widehat{f_n}$ is supported in the annulus $$A_n={xi:2^{n-1}<|xi|<2^{n+1}}$$and $$2^{nalpha}||f_n||_inftyle c.$$This sort of decomposition of a Besov space often makes it trivial to determine whether a convolution operator is bounded.



Here for example we're done if we can show that $$||Hf_n||_inftyle c||f_n||_infty,$$and that's actually true, even though $H$ is not bounded on $L^infty$.



Recall that up to an irrelevant constant $$widehat{Hf}(xi)=sgn(xi)hat f(xi).$$Choose a Schwarz function $phi_0$ with $$widehatphi_0(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_0).$$If $phi_n$ is an appropriate dilate of $phi_0$ we have $$widehat{phi_n}(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_n)$$and $$||phi_n||_1=||phi_0||_1.$$Hence $$Hf_n=phi_n*f_n,$$and hence $$||Hf_n||_inftyle||phi_n||_1||f_n||_infty=||phi_0||_1||f_n||_infty.$$



(The inequality fails for $alpha=1$; one explanation for why is that $Lip_1$ is not a Besov space...)



Why is that, I've been asked. First, $H$ is certainly not bounded on $L^infty$; if $f=chi_{(0,infty)}$ then $Hf$ is not bounded.



Hence $H$ is not bounded on $Lip_1$. Because, in the sense of distributions, $fin Lip_1$ if and only if $f'in L^infty$. It's clear, say from the Fourier transform, that $H$ commutes with the derivative. So $$||Hf||_{Lip_1}=||(Hf)'||_infty=||H(f')||_infty
notle c||f'||_infty=c||f||_{Lip_1}.$$



This proves in turn that $L^infty$ and $Lip_1$ are not Besov spaces, because any Besov space has a characterization analogous to the above, with a different defining inequality, and it follows exactly as above that $H$ is bounded on every Besov space.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Was Rudin your advisor?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    7 hours ago



















3












$begingroup$

It is not true.



We take the function
$$
f(x) =
begin{cases}
1 &:& xgeq 1,
\ x &:& -1<x<1,
\ -1 &:& xleq -1.
end{cases}
$$

First, let us verify that $|f|_{C^alpha} leq 3$.
Let $x,yinmathbb [-1,1]$ be given
(the other cases for $x,y$ are not that interesting, since $f$ has the same value as $f(1)$ or $f(-1)$).
Then
$$
frac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|^alpha}
= |x-y|^{1-alpha} leq 1+|x-y| leq 3.
$$

Thus $fin C^alpha$, i.e. $|f|_{C^alpha}$ is finite.



Calculating $mathcal Hf$ at $x=0$ yields
$$
mathcal (Hf)(0) =
p.v.int_{-infty}^infty frac{f(-y)}{y} mathrm dy
= int_{-infty}^{-1} frac1y + p.v.int_{-1}^1 (-1) mathrm dy + int_1^infty frac{-1}y mathrm dy
= -infty -2 -infty = -infty.
$$

Hence $mathcal Hf$ is not in $C^alpha$ because it is not continuous.
Therefore $|mathcal Hf|=infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    11 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago











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2 Answers
2






active

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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









7












$begingroup$

I believe the answer is yes. Going to cheat, pulling out a big gun.



If $0<alpha<1$ then $C^alpha$ is in fact a Besov space; we have $fin C^alpha$ if and only if $$f=sum_{ninBbb Z} f_n,$$where $widehat{f_n}$ is supported in the annulus $$A_n={xi:2^{n-1}<|xi|<2^{n+1}}$$and $$2^{nalpha}||f_n||_inftyle c.$$This sort of decomposition of a Besov space often makes it trivial to determine whether a convolution operator is bounded.



Here for example we're done if we can show that $$||Hf_n||_inftyle c||f_n||_infty,$$and that's actually true, even though $H$ is not bounded on $L^infty$.



Recall that up to an irrelevant constant $$widehat{Hf}(xi)=sgn(xi)hat f(xi).$$Choose a Schwarz function $phi_0$ with $$widehatphi_0(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_0).$$If $phi_n$ is an appropriate dilate of $phi_0$ we have $$widehat{phi_n}(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_n)$$and $$||phi_n||_1=||phi_0||_1.$$Hence $$Hf_n=phi_n*f_n,$$and hence $$||Hf_n||_inftyle||phi_n||_1||f_n||_infty=||phi_0||_1||f_n||_infty.$$



(The inequality fails for $alpha=1$; one explanation for why is that $Lip_1$ is not a Besov space...)



Why is that, I've been asked. First, $H$ is certainly not bounded on $L^infty$; if $f=chi_{(0,infty)}$ then $Hf$ is not bounded.



Hence $H$ is not bounded on $Lip_1$. Because, in the sense of distributions, $fin Lip_1$ if and only if $f'in L^infty$. It's clear, say from the Fourier transform, that $H$ commutes with the derivative. So $$||Hf||_{Lip_1}=||(Hf)'||_infty=||H(f')||_infty
notle c||f'||_infty=c||f||_{Lip_1}.$$



This proves in turn that $L^infty$ and $Lip_1$ are not Besov spaces, because any Besov space has a characterization analogous to the above, with a different defining inequality, and it follows exactly as above that $H$ is bounded on every Besov space.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Was Rudin your advisor?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    7 hours ago
















7












$begingroup$

I believe the answer is yes. Going to cheat, pulling out a big gun.



If $0<alpha<1$ then $C^alpha$ is in fact a Besov space; we have $fin C^alpha$ if and only if $$f=sum_{ninBbb Z} f_n,$$where $widehat{f_n}$ is supported in the annulus $$A_n={xi:2^{n-1}<|xi|<2^{n+1}}$$and $$2^{nalpha}||f_n||_inftyle c.$$This sort of decomposition of a Besov space often makes it trivial to determine whether a convolution operator is bounded.



Here for example we're done if we can show that $$||Hf_n||_inftyle c||f_n||_infty,$$and that's actually true, even though $H$ is not bounded on $L^infty$.



Recall that up to an irrelevant constant $$widehat{Hf}(xi)=sgn(xi)hat f(xi).$$Choose a Schwarz function $phi_0$ with $$widehatphi_0(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_0).$$If $phi_n$ is an appropriate dilate of $phi_0$ we have $$widehat{phi_n}(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_n)$$and $$||phi_n||_1=||phi_0||_1.$$Hence $$Hf_n=phi_n*f_n,$$and hence $$||Hf_n||_inftyle||phi_n||_1||f_n||_infty=||phi_0||_1||f_n||_infty.$$



(The inequality fails for $alpha=1$; one explanation for why is that $Lip_1$ is not a Besov space...)



Why is that, I've been asked. First, $H$ is certainly not bounded on $L^infty$; if $f=chi_{(0,infty)}$ then $Hf$ is not bounded.



Hence $H$ is not bounded on $Lip_1$. Because, in the sense of distributions, $fin Lip_1$ if and only if $f'in L^infty$. It's clear, say from the Fourier transform, that $H$ commutes with the derivative. So $$||Hf||_{Lip_1}=||(Hf)'||_infty=||H(f')||_infty
notle c||f'||_infty=c||f||_{Lip_1}.$$



This proves in turn that $L^infty$ and $Lip_1$ are not Besov spaces, because any Besov space has a characterization analogous to the above, with a different defining inequality, and it follows exactly as above that $H$ is bounded on every Besov space.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Was Rudin your advisor?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    7 hours ago














7












7








7





$begingroup$

I believe the answer is yes. Going to cheat, pulling out a big gun.



If $0<alpha<1$ then $C^alpha$ is in fact a Besov space; we have $fin C^alpha$ if and only if $$f=sum_{ninBbb Z} f_n,$$where $widehat{f_n}$ is supported in the annulus $$A_n={xi:2^{n-1}<|xi|<2^{n+1}}$$and $$2^{nalpha}||f_n||_inftyle c.$$This sort of decomposition of a Besov space often makes it trivial to determine whether a convolution operator is bounded.



Here for example we're done if we can show that $$||Hf_n||_inftyle c||f_n||_infty,$$and that's actually true, even though $H$ is not bounded on $L^infty$.



Recall that up to an irrelevant constant $$widehat{Hf}(xi)=sgn(xi)hat f(xi).$$Choose a Schwarz function $phi_0$ with $$widehatphi_0(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_0).$$If $phi_n$ is an appropriate dilate of $phi_0$ we have $$widehat{phi_n}(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_n)$$and $$||phi_n||_1=||phi_0||_1.$$Hence $$Hf_n=phi_n*f_n,$$and hence $$||Hf_n||_inftyle||phi_n||_1||f_n||_infty=||phi_0||_1||f_n||_infty.$$



(The inequality fails for $alpha=1$; one explanation for why is that $Lip_1$ is not a Besov space...)



Why is that, I've been asked. First, $H$ is certainly not bounded on $L^infty$; if $f=chi_{(0,infty)}$ then $Hf$ is not bounded.



Hence $H$ is not bounded on $Lip_1$. Because, in the sense of distributions, $fin Lip_1$ if and only if $f'in L^infty$. It's clear, say from the Fourier transform, that $H$ commutes with the derivative. So $$||Hf||_{Lip_1}=||(Hf)'||_infty=||H(f')||_infty
notle c||f'||_infty=c||f||_{Lip_1}.$$



This proves in turn that $L^infty$ and $Lip_1$ are not Besov spaces, because any Besov space has a characterization analogous to the above, with a different defining inequality, and it follows exactly as above that $H$ is bounded on every Besov space.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



I believe the answer is yes. Going to cheat, pulling out a big gun.



If $0<alpha<1$ then $C^alpha$ is in fact a Besov space; we have $fin C^alpha$ if and only if $$f=sum_{ninBbb Z} f_n,$$where $widehat{f_n}$ is supported in the annulus $$A_n={xi:2^{n-1}<|xi|<2^{n+1}}$$and $$2^{nalpha}||f_n||_inftyle c.$$This sort of decomposition of a Besov space often makes it trivial to determine whether a convolution operator is bounded.



Here for example we're done if we can show that $$||Hf_n||_inftyle c||f_n||_infty,$$and that's actually true, even though $H$ is not bounded on $L^infty$.



Recall that up to an irrelevant constant $$widehat{Hf}(xi)=sgn(xi)hat f(xi).$$Choose a Schwarz function $phi_0$ with $$widehatphi_0(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_0).$$If $phi_n$ is an appropriate dilate of $phi_0$ we have $$widehat{phi_n}(xi)=sgn(xi)quad(xiin A_n)$$and $$||phi_n||_1=||phi_0||_1.$$Hence $$Hf_n=phi_n*f_n,$$and hence $$||Hf_n||_inftyle||phi_n||_1||f_n||_infty=||phi_0||_1||f_n||_infty.$$



(The inequality fails for $alpha=1$; one explanation for why is that $Lip_1$ is not a Besov space...)



Why is that, I've been asked. First, $H$ is certainly not bounded on $L^infty$; if $f=chi_{(0,infty)}$ then $Hf$ is not bounded.



Hence $H$ is not bounded on $Lip_1$. Because, in the sense of distributions, $fin Lip_1$ if and only if $f'in L^infty$. It's clear, say from the Fourier transform, that $H$ commutes with the derivative. So $$||Hf||_{Lip_1}=||(Hf)'||_infty=||H(f')||_infty
notle c||f'||_infty=c||f||_{Lip_1}.$$



This proves in turn that $L^infty$ and $Lip_1$ are not Besov spaces, because any Besov space has a characterization analogous to the above, with a different defining inequality, and it follows exactly as above that $H$ is bounded on every Besov space.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 11 hours ago

























answered 12 hours ago









David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

60.8k43994




60.8k43994












  • $begingroup$
    This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Was Rudin your advisor?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    7 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Was Rudin your advisor?
    $endgroup$
    – orange
    7 hours ago
















$begingroup$
This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
12 hours ago




$begingroup$
This is a great answer, very interesting. It would be even greater if you could give some details on why the estimate fails for $alpha=0$ (the $L^infty$ case) and $alpha=1$.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
12 hours ago












$begingroup$
Was Rudin your advisor?
$endgroup$
– orange
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
Was Rudin your advisor?
$endgroup$
– orange
7 hours ago











3












$begingroup$

It is not true.



We take the function
$$
f(x) =
begin{cases}
1 &:& xgeq 1,
\ x &:& -1<x<1,
\ -1 &:& xleq -1.
end{cases}
$$

First, let us verify that $|f|_{C^alpha} leq 3$.
Let $x,yinmathbb [-1,1]$ be given
(the other cases for $x,y$ are not that interesting, since $f$ has the same value as $f(1)$ or $f(-1)$).
Then
$$
frac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|^alpha}
= |x-y|^{1-alpha} leq 1+|x-y| leq 3.
$$

Thus $fin C^alpha$, i.e. $|f|_{C^alpha}$ is finite.



Calculating $mathcal Hf$ at $x=0$ yields
$$
mathcal (Hf)(0) =
p.v.int_{-infty}^infty frac{f(-y)}{y} mathrm dy
= int_{-infty}^{-1} frac1y + p.v.int_{-1}^1 (-1) mathrm dy + int_1^infty frac{-1}y mathrm dy
= -infty -2 -infty = -infty.
$$

Hence $mathcal Hf$ is not in $C^alpha$ because it is not continuous.
Therefore $|mathcal Hf|=infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    11 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago
















3












$begingroup$

It is not true.



We take the function
$$
f(x) =
begin{cases}
1 &:& xgeq 1,
\ x &:& -1<x<1,
\ -1 &:& xleq -1.
end{cases}
$$

First, let us verify that $|f|_{C^alpha} leq 3$.
Let $x,yinmathbb [-1,1]$ be given
(the other cases for $x,y$ are not that interesting, since $f$ has the same value as $f(1)$ or $f(-1)$).
Then
$$
frac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|^alpha}
= |x-y|^{1-alpha} leq 1+|x-y| leq 3.
$$

Thus $fin C^alpha$, i.e. $|f|_{C^alpha}$ is finite.



Calculating $mathcal Hf$ at $x=0$ yields
$$
mathcal (Hf)(0) =
p.v.int_{-infty}^infty frac{f(-y)}{y} mathrm dy
= int_{-infty}^{-1} frac1y + p.v.int_{-1}^1 (-1) mathrm dy + int_1^infty frac{-1}y mathrm dy
= -infty -2 -infty = -infty.
$$

Hence $mathcal Hf$ is not in $C^alpha$ because it is not continuous.
Therefore $|mathcal Hf|=infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    11 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago














3












3








3





$begingroup$

It is not true.



We take the function
$$
f(x) =
begin{cases}
1 &:& xgeq 1,
\ x &:& -1<x<1,
\ -1 &:& xleq -1.
end{cases}
$$

First, let us verify that $|f|_{C^alpha} leq 3$.
Let $x,yinmathbb [-1,1]$ be given
(the other cases for $x,y$ are not that interesting, since $f$ has the same value as $f(1)$ or $f(-1)$).
Then
$$
frac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|^alpha}
= |x-y|^{1-alpha} leq 1+|x-y| leq 3.
$$

Thus $fin C^alpha$, i.e. $|f|_{C^alpha}$ is finite.



Calculating $mathcal Hf$ at $x=0$ yields
$$
mathcal (Hf)(0) =
p.v.int_{-infty}^infty frac{f(-y)}{y} mathrm dy
= int_{-infty}^{-1} frac1y + p.v.int_{-1}^1 (-1) mathrm dy + int_1^infty frac{-1}y mathrm dy
= -infty -2 -infty = -infty.
$$

Hence $mathcal Hf$ is not in $C^alpha$ because it is not continuous.
Therefore $|mathcal Hf|=infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



It is not true.



We take the function
$$
f(x) =
begin{cases}
1 &:& xgeq 1,
\ x &:& -1<x<1,
\ -1 &:& xleq -1.
end{cases}
$$

First, let us verify that $|f|_{C^alpha} leq 3$.
Let $x,yinmathbb [-1,1]$ be given
(the other cases for $x,y$ are not that interesting, since $f$ has the same value as $f(1)$ or $f(-1)$).
Then
$$
frac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|^alpha}
= |x-y|^{1-alpha} leq 1+|x-y| leq 3.
$$

Thus $fin C^alpha$, i.e. $|f|_{C^alpha}$ is finite.



Calculating $mathcal Hf$ at $x=0$ yields
$$
mathcal (Hf)(0) =
p.v.int_{-infty}^infty frac{f(-y)}{y} mathrm dy
= int_{-infty}^{-1} frac1y + p.v.int_{-1}^1 (-1) mathrm dy + int_1^infty frac{-1}y mathrm dy
= -infty -2 -infty = -infty.
$$

Hence $mathcal Hf$ is not in $C^alpha$ because it is not continuous.
Therefore $|mathcal Hf|=infty$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 11 hours ago

























answered 11 hours ago









supinfsupinf

6,3561028




6,3561028












  • $begingroup$
    I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    11 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
    $endgroup$
    – Giuseppe Negro
    11 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Calvin Khor
    11 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
    $endgroup$
    – supinf
    11 hours ago
















$begingroup$
I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
I have a question, in what sense is $mathcal H f$ defined, since $f$ is not a usual test function?
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
11 hours ago












$begingroup$
The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
11 hours ago






$begingroup$
The function $f$ must also decay at infinity for the inequality to hold. This decay is implicit in the Besov decomposition of David.
$endgroup$
– Giuseppe Negro
11 hours ago














$begingroup$
@CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
$endgroup$
– supinf
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
@CalvinKhor I used the definition given by VVCM in the original question.
$endgroup$
– supinf
11 hours ago












$begingroup$
Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
Oh, the PV includes a cutoff at infinity. thanks
$endgroup$
– Calvin Khor
11 hours ago












$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
$endgroup$
– supinf
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
@GiuseppeNegro It was not a requirement that the function decays at infinity. Even if the functions vanish at infinity, it might be possible to find a sequence that leads to a contradiction to the inequality conjectured in the original post.
$endgroup$
– supinf
11 hours ago


















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